MAHARASHTRA STATE ELIGIBILITY TEST (MH-SET)
Paper I (Booklet Code: A) — Detailed Solutions & Explanations
Exam Date: 15th June 2025 | Based on Official Final Answer Key
Q1. If taught on reflective level of teaching, the students get tremendous power for acquisition of: (i) Factual information (ii) Generalized insight (iii) Problem solving abilities
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Reflective level teaching operates at the highest cognitive plane (Hunt's model). While its primary focus is problem-solving abilities and deep generalized insight, it builds upon and solidifies factual knowledge, empowering learners across all three domains.
Q2. The session is planned with the aim to explore a number of ideas related to solution of a problem without passing any judgement. For this, the teacher will use _____ strategy.
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Brainstorming (developed by Alex Osborn) is specifically designed to generate a maximum quantity of ideas where criticism and judgement are explicitly suspended during ideation.
Q3. (i) 'SWAYAMPRABHA' is a name given to a group of DTH channels devoted to telecasting educational content. (ii) 'SWAYAM' provides online MOOC courses with a provision of certificate/credit-transfer.
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Both statements are factually correct. SWAYAMPRABHA telecasts high-quality educational programs 24/7 via DTH channels using GSAT-15, while SWAYAM provides MOOC courses eligible for credit transfer into academic records.
Q4. Summative evaluation is _____ in nature.
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Summative evaluation takes place at the end of an instructional period to assign grades, certify learning, or make decisions on progression, making its core nature judgemental/evaluative rather than developmental (formative).
Q5. CAI stands for:
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: CAI standardly stands for "Computer Assisted Instruction", which refers to instructional methods using computers for teaching, drill-and-practice, or simulation.
Q6. _____ is not a type of research.
Correct Answer: 9 (Question Invalid / No Option Correct / Cancelled)
Explanation: While Descriptive, Exploratory, and Causal research are standard objective research designs and "Subjective research" (Qualitative/Phenomenological) is often considered an approach rather than a standard type, the question was invalidated/dropped by the examining body.
Q7. _____ is the role of simulation software.
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Simulation software enables researchers and educators to model real-world processes or complex systems virtually to conduct safe, repeatable experiments.
Q8. _____ is a common goal of both positivistic and post-positivistic approaches to research.
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: While post-positivism critiques the strict objectivity of positivism, both paradigms share the foundational aim of systematically uncovering truth, discovering new knowledge, and understanding phenomena.
Q9. The term "DOI" stands for _____ in academic writing and referencing.
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: DOI stands for Digital Object Identifier, a persistent alphanumeric string assigned to uniquely identify academic articles, books, and documents on the web.
Q10. _____ term refers to the ethical obligation of researcher to give credit to the ideas, words or work of others.
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: In academic ethics, "Attribution" is the explicit act and ethical principle of formally crediting original authors, creators, or sources for their ideas, data, and writing.
Q11. The object of an ergonomist is:
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Directly stated in paragraph 3 of the passage: "His object is to enable a person of ordinary abilities to carry out his tasks safely and efficiently, with a minimum of instruction."
Q12. What is the more common or traditional policy?
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Paragraph 2 states: "...in contrast to the more common, traditional policy of 'fitting the man to the machine' by selecting and training the best man..."
Q13. What do you understand by 'boffins'?
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: 'Boffin' is British slang for technical experts, scientists, or engineers engaged in scientific or technological research.
Q14. Ergonomics is the study of:
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Paragraph 2 opens: "Broadly, ergonomics is the study of the relationship between man and his working environment."
Q15. An ergonomist himself needs a knowledge of:
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Paragraph 4 explicitly states: "The ergonomist himself needs a knowledge of a number of sciences and techniques in order to carry out his work."
Q16. If communication is defined as "effective or successful transmission of a message from the sender to the other person", then which of the following becomes the fundamental criteria to decide the extent of effectiveness of the communication?
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Communication is effective when the receiver decodes and understands the message precisely with the intended meaning, purpose, and fidelity as encoded by the sender.
Q17. Instance 1: A teacher is giving a lecture in a class of 10 students. Instance 2: A teacher is giving a lecture in a class of 100 students. Assuming all the intervening variables to be the same in both the instances, which of the following is the most likely possibility from the perspective of communication?
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Smaller class sizes (10 students) dramatically lower psychological barriers, provide more floor time per student, and allow immediate two-way interactive feedback compared to large lecture halls (100 students).
Q18. Which criterion produces 'Intra', 'Inter', 'Group' and 'Mass' as four types of communication?
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: This taxonomy is strictly based on scale and number of participants: Intrapersonal (1 person), Interpersonal (2 persons), Group (a defined group), and Mass (large anonymous audiences).
Q19. In the context of Indian television, which of the following did not take place in the decade of 1980?
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Doordarshan was officially separated from All India Radio (AIR) on 1 April 1976 (1970s decade). Colour transmission (1982), expansion of LPTs across India, and Ramayan/Mahabharat telecasts all occurred during the 1980s.
Q20. Which of the following is an incorrect statement with respect to online meeting?
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Video conferencing meetings routinely capture and display non-verbal cues (facial expressions, eye movement, hand gestures, nods). Thus, stating that it "does not incorporate" them is false.
Q21. In a company, shares of Shanta, Kanta and Bhranta are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 1. Profit of the company in a certain year is Rs. 3,33,333/-. How much is the profit of Kanta in rupees?
Correct Answer: (B)
Calculation: Total ratio parts = 3 + 5 + 1 = 9 parts. Kanta's share = (5 / 9) × 3,33,333 = 5 × 37,037 = Rs. 1,85,185.
Q22. A watch at a particular time indicates that it is Monday 1 pm. What will be indication in the watch after completing 101 hours?
Correct Answer: (D)
Calculation: 101 hours = (4 × 24 hours) + 5 hours = 4 days + 5 hours. Monday 1:00 PM + 4 days = Friday 1:00 PM. Adding the remaining 5 hours gives Friday 6:00 PM.
Q23. Suppose 5 numbers are selected at random from the set of numbers {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}. Then which of the following statements is necessarily true about the selected numbers?
Correct Answer: (h) [Both (B) and (C) are accepted]
Explanation: Pair the 8 numbers into 4 disjoint sets that sum to 9: {1, 8}, {2, 7}, {3, 6}, {4, 5}. By Pigeonhole Principle, picking any 5 numbers guarantees picking both numbers from at least one pair (Statement C is true). Furthermore, since there are only 5 numbers picked, you can make at most 2 disjoint pairs (Statement B is also true). Official key code 'h' awards marks for both B and C.
Q24. A bank is offering following choices to a customer for interest on fixed deposits. Which will be the most beneficial to the customer?
Correct Answer: (A)
Calculation: Effective Annual Rates (EAR):
(A) 10.00%
(B) (1 + 0.045)^2 - 1 = 9.20%
(C) (1 + 0.02)^4 - 1 = 8.24%
(D) (1 + 0.07/12)^12 - 1 = 7.23%
Option (A) provides the highest effective return.
(A) 10.00%
(B) (1 + 0.045)^2 - 1 = 9.20%
(C) (1 + 0.02)^4 - 1 = 8.24%
(D) (1 + 0.07/12)^12 - 1 = 7.23%
Option (A) provides the highest effective return.
Q25. In a right-angled triangle, we have three sides of lengths namely hypotenuse H cm, base B cm and height T cm. Then which of the following ratios is the largest?
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: In any right triangle, hypotenuse H is strictly greater than both B and T (H > B and H > T). Hence, H/T is strictly greater than 1, while T/H and B/H are strictly less than 1. Also H/T = sqrt(B^2 + T^2)/T > B/T. Therefore, H/T is the largest.
Q26. Statement I: All tax payers are honest. Statement II: All students are honest. Conclusion 1: Some tax payers are not honest. Conclusion 2: Some students are tax payers.
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Statement I states all tax payers are honest, directly contradicting Conclusion 1. Both statements share the predicate 'honest' (undistributed middle term); no formal syllogistic overlap between students and tax payers is established. Thus, neither conclusion follows.
Q27. In the ranking of a competitive examination Vishal was above Vijay but below Shyam. Mohan was above Shyam but below Rohan. Vijay was between Vishal and Ashok. Who is third from the top?
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Ranking from top to bottom:
Rohan > Mohan > Shyam > Vishal > Vijay > Ashok.
1st: Rohan, 2nd: Mohan, 3rd: Shyam.
Rohan > Mohan > Shyam > Vishal > Vijay > Ashok.
1st: Rohan, 2nd: Mohan, 3rd: Shyam.
Q28. In a code language if 'MUMBAI' is coded as LVLCZJ, then how 'SANGLI' will be coded in the same language?
Correct Answer: (C)
Pattern: Alternating shift: -1, +1, -1, +1, -1, +1.
S (-1) → R
A (+1) → B
N (-1) → M
G (+1) → H
L (-1) → K
I (+1) → J
Result = RBMHKJ.
S (-1) → R
A (+1) → B
N (-1) → M
G (+1) → H
L (-1) → K
I (+1) → J
Result = RBMHKJ.
Q29. Ragini facing East walks 10 meter, then she turns to her left and walks 12 meter. Then she turns to her right in 45° and walks 15 meter. Then, how much distance she has walked from the starting point and which direction is she facing now?
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Total distance walked = 10 + 12 + 15 = 37 meters. She walked East, turned left (North), and then turned 45° right, which faces North-East.
Q30. Which of the following alternatives will complete the numerical series: 11, 14, 25, ___, 133
Correct Answer: 9 (Question Invalid / Cancelled)
Explanation: The differences do not form a consistent mathematical sequence matching standard options, so the question was voided in the official key.
Q31. Out of 20 villages in a certain state, salesman A visited 14 villages, salesman B visited 12 villages. None of them visited 2 villages. How many villages were visited by both the salesmen?
Correct Answer: (D)
Calculation: Visited by at least one = 20 - 2 = 18. n(A ∪ B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A ∩ B) ⇒ 18 = 14 + 12 - n(A ∩ B) ⇒ n(A ∩ B) = 26 - 18 = 8.
Q32. How many villages were visited by at least one salesman?
Correct Answer: (B)
Calculation: Out of 20 villages, exactly 2 were visited by neither salesman. Thus, 20 - 2 = 18 villages were visited by at least one salesman.
Q33. Which employee has maximum working days during the years 2018-2022?
Correct Answer: (D)
Totals:
A = 280 + 300 + 310 + 315 + 295 = 1500
B = 310 + 290 + 300 + 310 + 300 = 1510
C = 315 + 310 + 315 + 315 + 300 = 1555
D = 315 + 315 + 310 + 310 + 305 = 1555
E = 320 + 325 + 320 + 330 + 310 = 1605 (Maximum).
A = 280 + 300 + 310 + 315 + 295 = 1500
B = 310 + 290 + 300 + 310 + 300 = 1510
C = 315 + 310 + 315 + 315 + 300 = 1555
D = 315 + 315 + 310 + 310 + 305 = 1555
E = 320 + 325 + 320 + 330 + 310 = 1605 (Maximum).
Q34. Which employees have equal number of total working days during 2018-2022?
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Both Employee C (1555 days) and Employee D (1555 days) have identical totals across 2018–2022.
Q35. From the table of Birth rates and Death rates per thousand, in which years do you see the difference between Birth rate and Death rate the same?
Correct Answer: (D)
Calculation: Difference = Birth rate - Death rate:
1961: 90 - 20 = 70
1971: 88 - 18 = 70
Both years have the exact same difference of 70.
1961: 90 - 20 = 70
1971: 88 - 18 = 70
Both years have the exact same difference of 70.
Q36. Identify the incorrect pair of file format and the corresponding file form:
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: WPT is a WordPerfect Template or GPS waypoint file format, not an audio format (such as MP3, WAV, AAC, FLAC).
Q37. In the context of information technology, what is cloud computing?
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Cloud computing is the on-demand delivery of IT resources (computing power, storage, databases, networking) via the Internet with pay-as-you-go pricing.
Q38. What is the name of the international encoding standard for use with different languages and scripts by which each letter, digit or symbol is assigned a unique numeric value that applies across different platform, device or language?
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Unicode provides a unique number for every character, no matter what platform, device, application, or language is used.
Q39. Which of the following options shows the correct chronological order of communication technologies?
Correct Answer: (B)
Timeline: Electrical Telegraph (1830s/1840s) → Motion Picture/Movie Camera (late 1880s) → Radio broadcast (late 1890s / 1900s) → Television broadcast (late 1920s).
Q40. Which of the following is not the typical feature of Web 2.0 environment?
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Web 1.0 was characterised by passive consumers reading static web pages. Web 2.0 is defined by active user participation, interaction, and user-generated content.
Q41. International Solar Alliance headquarters is located at:
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is headquartered in Gurugram, Haryana, India (National Institute of Solar Energy campus).
Q42. Which city hosted the United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP21) where the Paris Agreement was negotiated and adopted?
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: COP21 was held in Paris, France, in December 2015, resulting in the adoption of the historic Paris Agreement.
Q43. Which schedule of the Environment Protection Act, (1986) lists industries that require mandatory environment clearance?
Correct Answer: 9 (Question Invalid / Cancelled)
Explanation: Environmental Clearances in India are primarily governed through the EIA Notifications (1994, 2006) framed under Section 3 of the EPA rather than direct schedules in the parent Act itself, leading to ambiguity and voiding of the question.
Q44. How does nutrient pollution affect marine ecosystem?
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Excess nutrients (nitrogen and phosphorus) cause eutrophication, driving rapid algal blooms that deplete dissolved oxygen and create dead zones in marine habitats.
Q45. Which of the following is the effect of air pollution on leaves that causes the killing or collapse of tissues?
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Necrosis is the localized death or collapse of living plant tissue/cells, often seen as brownish spots on leaves. Chlorosis is yellowing caused by chlorophyll loss.
Q46. During British period in India Lord Curzon had organized _____ for development of Indian Education.
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Lord Curzon convened the Simla Educational Conference in September 1901, which led to the Indian Universities Commission (1902) and the Indian Universities Act of 1904.
Q47. The Sadler Commission was a Commission set-up to inquire into:
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Sadler Commission (Calcutta University Commission, 1917) was specifically appointed under Dr. Michael Sadler to inquire into the problems and needs of Calcutta University.
Q48. In Buddhist educational tradition, in order to become a 'Guru', the person had to undergo through following series:
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: An aspirant entered monastic education via the Pabajja ceremony as a novice monk (Shraman/Samanera), became a full monk after Upasampada (Bhikkhu), and achieved the status of preceptor/teacher (Upadhyaya).
Q49. In Vedic educational tradition the word 'Upanishad' literally means:
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Etymologically, 'Upanishad' derives from *Upa* (near), *Ni* (down), and *Sad* (to sit) — literally meaning "to sit down closely near the Guru" to receive esoteric instruction.
Q50. According to Jainism education tradition the first method of learning is:
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: In the traditional stages recognized in Jain pedagogical tradition and official answer keys, learning begins with spiritual invocation and contemplation (Prarthana), followed by auditory learning and reflection.
